Tonsillectomy

blade #12
5allis
2mixters
2bobcock
2cherries
2needle holde
1silk
CA set
10cc syringe
mouth ret
shoulder pad
st mary
cautery

culdocentesis

5cc syringe
g19 needle
posterior retractors
ovum forcep
small os
gloves
tenaculum

Suprapubic Prostatectomy

ap set
cautery machine
big os
richardson
army navy
self retaining
aseptosyringe
allis
foley cath
narrow deaver
3way foley cath
10cc syringe

Billiary bypass

ap set
chole set
army navy
richardson
wide deaver
narrow deaver
big os
rubber tubing
gloves
complete pack
mixter
adson
debakey
blade 10,20
urine bag
foley cath
metz, mayo
silk 3.0
chromic 3-0 cutting
vicryl 4-0

Tracheostomy tube insertion

minor set
gowns wd drapes
prep bowl
cautery machine/tip
zen miller
blade #15
army nav
rubber tubing
mayo straight
t syringe
5cc"
silk
nylon 5.0
round/cutting needle
small os
gloves

explore lap (ectopic preg)

ochsner curve
bob cock
cs set
complete pack
big os
visceral pack
free tie
richardson
army navy
blade 10,20
foley cath
urine bag
sutures chromic 2-0 at
vicryl at
plain 2.0 na
vicryl 3.0 at

herniorrhaphy

ap set
bb richardson
army navy
rubber tubing
metz, mayo st
gloves
sutures
silk 2.0 strands
plain 2-0 at
vicryl 4-0 cutting

explore lap (ob case)

complete pack
cs set
gloves
sutures
spinal set
spinal anesthesia
spinal needle
prep bowl
foley cath
urine bag
blade 10,20
big os
suction tip
rubber tubing
kick bucket
powder
mayo st, curve; metz
towel clip
visceral pack

explore lap (surgery)

complete pack
ap set
gloves
spinal set
spinal anesthesia
spinal needle
skin prep bowl
foley cath
urine bag
blade #10,20
big OS
suction tip
rubber tubing
kick bucket
powder
mayo st, curve
metz
towel clip
cautery machine/tip
suction machine

Gastrostomy

minor set
baby richardson
bob cock
gloves
eye sheet
square drape
foley cath
blade #15
free tie

Sample Question 3

41. A nurse is observing a child’s motor, sensory and speech development. The child is 7 months old. Which of the following tasks would generally not be observed?

A: Child recognizes tone of voice.

B: Child exhibits fear of strangers.

C: Child pulls to stand and occasionally bounces.

D: Child plays patty-cake and imitates.

42. A nurse is observing a child’s motor, sensory and speech development. The child is 5 months old. Which of the following tasks would generally not be observed?

A: Child sits with support.

B: Child laughs out loud.

C: Child shifts weight side to side in prone.

D: Child transfers objects between hands.

43. A nurse is caring for an adult that has recently been diagnosed with renal failure. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely not be present?

A: Hypotension

B: Heart failure

C: Dizziness

D: Memory loss

44. A nurse is caring for an adult that has recently been diagnosed with hypokalemia. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely not be present?

A: Leg cramps

B: Respiratory distress

C: Confusion

D: Flaccid paralysis

45. A nurse is caring for an adult that has recently been diagnosed with metabolic acidosis. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely not be present?

A: Weakness

B: Dysrhythmias

C: Dry skin

D: Malaise

46. A nurse is caring for an adult that has recently been diagnosed with metabolic alkalosis. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely not be present?

A: Vomiting

B: Diarrhea

C: Agitation

D: Hyperventilation

47. A nurse is caring for an adult that has recently been diagnosed with respiratory acidosis. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely not be present?

A: CO₂ Retention

B: Dyspnea

C: Headaches

D: Tachypnea

48. A nurse is caring for an adult that has recently been diagnosed with respiratory alkalosis. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely not be present?

A: Anxiety attacks

B: Dizziness

C: Hyperventilation cyanosis

D: Blurred vision

49. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s medication list. The drug Pentoxifylline is present on the list. Which of the following conditions is commonly treated with this medication?

A: COPD B: CAD

C: PVD

D: MS

50. A patient has been on long-term management for CHF. Which of the following drugs is considered a loop dieuretic that could be used to treat CHF symptoms?

A: Ciprofloxacin

B: Lepirudin

C: Naproxen

D: Bumex

51. A patient has recently been diagnosed with polio and has questions about the diagnosis. Which of the following systems is most affected by polio?

A: PNS

B: CNS

C: Urinary system

D: Cardiac system

52. A nurse is educating a patient about right-sided heart deficits. Which of the following clinical signs is not associated with right-sided heart deficits?

A: Orthopnea

B: Dependent edema

C: Ascites

D: Nocturia

53. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s medication. Which of the following is considered a potassium sparing dieuretic?

A: Esidrix

B: Lasix

C: Aldactone

D: Edecrin

54. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s medication. The patient is taking Digoxin. Which of the following is not an effect of Digoxin?

A: Depressed HR

B: Increased CO

C: Increased venous pressure

D: Increased contractility of cardiac muscle

55. A patient has been instructed by the doctor to reduce their intake of Potassium. Which types of foods should not worry about avoiding?

A: Bananas

B: Tomatoes

C: Orange juice

D: Apples

56. A patient’s chart indicates the patient is suffering from Digoxin toxicity. Which of the following clinical signs is not associated with digoxin toxicity?

A: Ventricular bigeminy

B: Anorexia

C: Normal ventricular rhythm

D: Nausea

57. A fourteen year old male has just been admitted to your floor. He has a history of central abdominal pain that has moved to the right iliac fossa region. He also has tenderness over the region and a fever. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

A: Appendicitis

B: Acute pancreatitis

C: Ulcerative colitis

D: Cholecystitis

58. A thirteen-year old male has a tender lump area in his left groin. His abdomen is distended and he has been vomiting for the past 24 hours. Which of the following would you most like suspect?

A: Ulcerative colitis

B: Biliary colic

C: Acute gastroenteritis

D: Strangulated hernia

59. Which of the following is the key risk factor for development of Parkinson’s disease dementia?

A: History of strokes

B: Acute headaches history

C: Edward’s syndrome

D: Use of phenothiazines

60. A father notifies your clinic that his son’s homeroom teacher has just been diagnosed with meningitis and his son spent the day with the teacher in detention yesterday. Which of the following would be the most likely innervention?

A: Isolation of the son

B: Treatment of the son with Aciclovir

C: Treatment of the son with Rifampicin

D: Reassure the father

61. A patient has recently been diagnosed with hyponatremia. Which of the following is not associated with hyponatremia?

A: Muscle twitching

B: Anxiety

C: Cyanosis

D: Sticky mucous membranes

62. A patient has recently been diagnosed with hypernatremia. Which of the following is not associated with hypernatremia?

A: Hypotension

B: Tachycardia

C: Pitting edema

D: Weight gain

63. Which of the following normal blood therapeutic concentrations is abnormal?

A: Phenobarbital 10-40 mcg/ml

B: Lithium .6 – 1.2 mEq/L

C: Digoxin .5 – 1.6 ng/ml

D: Valproic acid 40 – 100 mcg/ml

64. Which of the following normal blood therapeutic concentrations is abnormal?

A: Digitoxin 09 – 25 mcg/ml

B: Vancomycin 05 – 15 mcg/ml

C: Primidone 02 – 14 mcg/ml

D: Theophylline 10 – 20 mcg/ml

65. Which of the following normal blood therapeutic concentrations is abnormal?

A: Phenytoin 10 – 20 mcg/ml

B: Quinidine 02 – 06 mcg/ml

C: Haloperidol 05 – 20 ng/ml

D: Carbamazepine 5 – 25 mcg/ml

Answer Key 2

21. (B) Discharge education begins upon admit.
22. (B) Initiative vs. guilt- 3-6 years old
23. (A) Trust vs. Mistrust- 12-18 months old
24. (D) Intimacy vs. isolation- 18-35 years old
25. (B) HR and Respirations are slightly increased. BP is down.
26. (A) Elavil is a tricyclic antidepressant.
27. (D) Erythromycin is used to treat conditions A-C.
28. (D) Answer choices A-C were symptoms of acute hyperkalemia.
29. (C) Weight loss would be expected.
30. (A) Loss of appetite would be expected.
31. (D) Choice A is linked to Plague, Choice B is linked to peptic ulcers, Choice C is linked to Cholera.
32. (A) Choice B is linked to Rheumatic fever, Choice C is linked to Anthrax, Choice D is linked to Endocarditis.
33. (D) A CT scan would be performed for further investigation of the hemiparesis.
34. (C) Weight gain and poor temperature tolerance indicate something may be wrong with the thyroid function.
35. (C) Blood cultures would be performed to investigate the fever and rash symptoms.
36. (A) With a history of diabetes, the first response should be to check blood sugar levels.
37. (C) Age is not the greatest factor in potty training. The overall mental and physical abilities of the child is the most important factor.
38. (C) The poison control center will have an exact plan of action for this child.
39. (C) Vastus lateralis is the most appropriate location.
40. (D) In this case you are able to determine the name of the child by the father’s statement, moreover you should not withhold the medication from the child following identification.

mnemonics

To remember the clinical findings associated w/UTI think urinary tract is FULL of infection:

F-frequent urge to void
U-urine that is foul smelling and cloudy
L-low grade fever
L-lethargy


No P No K.

If the patient isn't peeing, they are probably retaining potassium, therefore they shouldn't be getting it.

Nursing Considerations for renal failure --KIDNEY:

K - Keeping fluid balance
I - Inspecting the skin for Pruritus
D - Dietary Instructions
N - No to Acidosis
E - Electrolyte imbalance maintainance
Y - Your blood counts

ASSESSMENT on dehydration

D=dry skin & mucous membrane
E=eyeball/fontannel sunken
H=hypotension
Y= you feel coolness/mottling of the extremeties
D=delayed capillary filling time
R= response to stimuli/LOC changes
A= absence of tears
T=tachycardia
I=increase urine specific gravity
O=oliguria
N=no/loss skin turgor and elasticity

Sample Question 2

21. A 65 year old man has been admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery. When does the discharge training and planning begin for this patient?

A: Following surgery

B: Upon admit

C: Within 48 hours of discharge

D: Preoperative discussion

22. A child is 5 years old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the child in?

A: Trust vs. mistrust

B: Initiative vs. guilt

C: Autonomy vs. shame

D: Intimacy vs. isolation

23. A toddler is 16 months old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the toddler in?

A: Trust vs. mistrust

B: Initiative vs. guilt

C: Autonomy vs. shame

D: Intimacy vs. isolation

24. A young adult is 20 years old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the adult in?

A: Trust vs. mistrust

B: Initiative vs. guilt

C: Autonomy vs. shame

D: Intimacy vs. isolation

25. A nurse is making rounds taking vital signs. Which of the following vital signs is abnormal?

A: 11 year old male – 90 b.p.m, 22 resp/min. , 100/70 mm Hg

B: 13 year old female – 105 b.p.m., 22 resp/min., 105/60 mm Hg

C: 5 year old male- 102 b.p.m, 24 resp/min., 90/65 mm Hg

D: 6 year old female- 100 b.p.m., 26 resp/min., 90/70mm Hg

26. When you are taking a patient’s history, she tells you she has been depressed and is dealing with an anxiety disorder. Which of the following medications would the patient most likely be taking?

A: Elavil

B: Calcitonin

C: Pergolide

D: Verapamil

27. Which of the following conditions would a nurse not administer erythromycin?

A: Campylobacterial infection

B: Legionnaire’s disease

C: Pneumonia

D: Multiple Sclerosis

28. A patient’s chart indicates a history of hyperkalemia. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

A: Decreased HR

B: Paresthesias

C: Muscle weakness of the extremities

D: Migranes

29. A patient’s chart indicates a history of ketoacidosis. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

A: Vomiting

B: Extreme Thirst

C: Weight gain

D: Acetone breath smell

30. A patient’s chart indicates a history of meningitis. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

A: Increased appetite

B: Vomiting

C: Fever

D: Poor tolerance of light

31. A nurse if reviewing a patient’s chart and notices that the patient suffers from conjunctivitis. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?

A: Yersinia pestis

B: Helicobacter pyroli

C: Vibrio cholera

D: Hemophilus aegyptius

32. A nurse if reviewing a patient’s chart and notices that the patient suffers from Lyme disease. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?

A: Borrelia burgdorferi

B: Streptococcus pyrogens

C: Bacilus anthracis

D: Enterococcus faecalis

33. A fragile 87 year-old female has recently been admitted to the hospital with increased confusion and falls over last 2 weeks. She is also noted to have a mild left hemiparesis. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed?

A: FBC (full blood count)

B: ECG (electrocardiogram)

C: Thyroid function tests

D: CT scan

34. A 84 year-old male has been loosing mobility and gaining weight over the last 2 months. The patient also has the heater running in his house 24 hours a day, even on warm days. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed?

A: FBC (full blood count)

B: ECG (electrocardiogram)

C: Thyroid function tests

D: CT scan

35. A 20 year-old female attending college is found unconscious in her dorm room. She has a fever and a noticeable rash. She has just been admitted to the hospital. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

A: Blood sugar check

B: CT scan

C: Blood cultures

D: Arterial blood gases

36. A 28 year old male has been found wandering around in a confused pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

A: Blood sugar check

B: CT scan

C: Blood cultures

D: Arterial blood gases

37. A mother is inquiring about her child’s ability to potty train. Which of the following factors is the most important aspect of toilet training?

A: The age of the child

B: The child ability to understand instruction.

C: The overall mental and physical abilities of the child.

D: Frequent attempts with positive reinforcement.

38. A parent calls the pediatric clinic and is frantic about the bottle of cleaning fluid her child drank 20 minutes. Which of the following is the most important instruction the nurse can give the parent?

A: This too shall pass.

B: Take the child immediately to the ER

C: Contact the Poison Control Center quickly

D: Give the child syrup of ipecac

39. A nurse is administering a shot of Vitamin K to a 30 day-old infant. Which of the following target areas is the most appropriate?

A: Gluteus maximus

B: Gluteus minimus

C: Vastus lateralis

D: Vastus medialis

40. A nurse has just started her rounds delivering medication. A new patient on her rounds is a 4 year-old boy who is non-verbal. This child does not have on any identification. What should the nurse do?

A: Contact the provider

B: Ask the child to write their name on paper.

C: Ask a co-worker about the identification of the child.

D: Ask the father who is in the room the child’s name.

Answer key 1

1. (A) and (B) are both contraindicated with pregnancy.
2. (F) All of the others have can cause photosensitivity reactions.
3. (D) All of the others can cause urine discoloration.
4. (A) Corgard could be removed from the refigerator.
5. (D) IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placental barrier.
6. (B) AZT treatment is the most critical innervention.
7. (C) Autonomic neuropathy can cause inability to urinate.
8. (B) All of the clinical signs and systems point to a condition of anorexia nervosa.
9. (B) Hypercalcaemia can cause polyuria, severe abdominal pain, and confusion.
10. (C) Rho gam prevents the production of anti-RH antibodies in the mother that has a Rh positive fetus.
11. (D) The effects of PKU stay with the infant throughout their life.
12. (D) Aspirin overdose can lead to metabolic acidosis and cause pulmonary edema development.
13. (D) This patient’s safety is your primary concern.
14. (C) The bronchodilator will allow a more productive cough.
15. (B) Weight gain is associated with CHF and congenital heart deficits.
16. (C) The skin would be dry and not oily.
17. (A) Streptokinase is a clot busting drug and the best choice in this situation.
18. (A) Green vegetables and liver are a great source of folic acid.
19. (D) Cl. difficile has not been linked to meningitis.
20. (D) RBC’s last for 120 days in the body.

Sample Question1

1. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s medication during shift change. Which of the following medication would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant? Note: More than one answer may be correct.
A: Coumadin
B: Finasteride
C: Celebrex
D: Catapress
E: Habitrol
F: Clofazimine
2. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s PMH. The history indicates photosensitive reactions to medications. Which of the following drugs has not been associated with photosensitive reactions? Note: More than one answer may be correct.
A: Cipro
B: Sulfonamide
C: Noroxin
D: Bactrim
E: Accutane
F: Nitrodur
3. A patient tells you that her urine is starting to look discolored. If you believe this change is due to medication, which of the following patient’s medication does not cause urine discoloration?
A: Sulfasalazine
B: Levodopa
C: Phenolphthalein
D: Aspirin
4. You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit’s refrigerator. If you found the following drug in the refrigerator it should be removed from the refrigerator’s contents?
A: Corgard
B: Humulin (injection)
C: Urokinase
D: Epogen (injection)
5. A 34 year old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. She has also recently discovered that she is pregnant. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb?
A: IgA
B: IgD
C: IgE
D: IgG
6. A second year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most important action that nursing student should take?
A: Immediately see a social worker
B: Start prophylactic AZT treatment
C: Start prophylactic Pentamide treatment
D: Seek counseling
7. A thirty five year old male has been an insulin-dependent diabetic for five years and now is unable to urinate. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?
A: Atherosclerosis
B: Diabetic nephropathy
C: Autonomic neuropathy
D: Somatic neuropathy
8. You are taking the history of a 14 year old girl who has a (BMI) of 18. The girl reports inability to eat, induced vomiting and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?
A: Multiple sclerosis
B: Anorexia nervosa
C: Bulimia
D: Systemic sclerosis
9. A 24 year old female is admitted to the ER for confusion. This patient has a history of a myeloma diagnosis, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?
A: Diverticulosis
B: Hypercalcaemia

C: Hypocalcaemia

D: Irritable bowel syndrome

10. Rho gam is most often used to treat____ mothers that have a ____ infant.

A: RH positive, RH positive

B: RH positive, RH negative

C: RH negative, RH positive

D: RH negative, RH negative

11. A new mother has some questions about (PKU). Which of the following statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU?

A: A Guthrie test can check the necessary lab values.

B: The urine has a high concentration of phenylpyruvic acid

C: Mental deficits are often present with PKU.

D: The effects of PKU are reversible.

12. A patient has taken an overdose of aspirin. Which of the following should a nurse most closely monitor for during acute management of this patient?

A: Onset of pulmonary edema

B: Metabolic alkalosis

C: Respiratory alkalosis

D: Parkinson’s disease type symptoms

13. A fifty-year-old blind and deaf patient has been admitted to your floor. As the charge nurse your primary responsibility for this patient is?

A: Let others know about the patient’s deficits

B: Communicate with your supervisor your concerns about the patient’s deficits.

C: Continuously update the patient on the social environment.

D: Provide a secure environment for the patient.

14. A patient is getting discharged from a SNF facility. The patient has a history of severe COPD and PVD. The patient is primarily concerned about their ability to breath easily. Which of the following would be the best instruction for this patient?

A: Deep breathing techniques to increase O2 levels.

B: Cough regularly and deeply to clear airway passages.

C: Cough following bronchodilator utilization

D: Decrease CO2 levels by increase oxygen take output during meals.

15. A nurse is caring for an infant that has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely be present?

A: Slow pulse rate

B: Weight gain

C: Decreased systolic pressure

D: Irregular WBC lab values

16. A mother has recently been informed that her child has Down’s syndrome. You will be assigned to care for the child at shift change. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with Down’s syndrome?

A: Simian crease

B: Brachycephaly

C: Oily skin

D: Hypotonicity

17. A patient has recently experienced a (MI) within the last 4 hours. Which of the following medications would most like be administered?

A: Streptokinase

B: Atropine

C: Acetaminophen

D: Coumadin

18. A patient asks a nurse, “My doctor recommended I increase my intake of folic acid. What type of foods contain folic acids?”

A: Green vegetables and liver

B: Yellow vegetables and red meat

C: Carrots

D: Milk

19. A nurse is putting together a presentation on meningitis. Which of the following microorganisms has noted been linked to meningitis in humans?

A: S. pneumonia

B: H. influenza

C: N. meningitis

D: Cl. difficile

20. A nurse is administering blood to a patient who has a low hemoglobin count. The patient asks how long to RBC’s last in my body? The correct response is.

A: The life span of RBC is 45 days.

B: The life span of RBC is 60 days.

C: The life span of RBC is 90 days.

D: The life span of RBC is 120 days.

Definition of a Root Word III

N
nas/o nose
nat/o birth
necr/o death
nephr/o kidney
neur/o nerve
noct/i night
O
ocul/o eye
olig/o few
omphal/o navel
onc/o tumor
onych/o nail
oophor/o ovary
ophthalm/o eye
opt/o vision
orchid/o testicle
orch/o testicle
organ/o organ
or/o mouth
orth/o straight
oste/o bone
ot/o ear
ox/i oxygen
P
pachy/o thick
palat/o palate
pancreat/o pancreas
par/o labor
patell/o patella
path/o disease
pelv/i pelvis
perine/o peritoneum
petr/o stone
phalang/o pharynx
phas/o speech
phleb/o vein
phot/o light
phren/o mind
plasm/o plasma
pleur/o pleura
pneumon/o lung
poli/o gray matter
polyp/o small growth
poster/o posterior
prim/i first
proct/o rectum
proxim/o proximal
pseud/o fake
psych/o mind
pub/o pubis
puerper/o childbirth
pulmon/o lung
pupill/o pupil
pyel/o renal pelvis
pylor/o pylorus
py/o pus
Q
quadr/i four
R
rachi/o spinal
radic/o nerve
radi/o radius
rect/o rectum
ren/o kidney
retin/o retina
rhabd/o striated
rhytid/o wrinkles
rhiz/o nerve
S
sacr/o sacrum
scapul/o scapula
scler/o sclera
scoli/o curved
seb/o sebum
sept/o septum
sial/o saliva
sinus/o sinus
somat/o body
son/o sound
spermat/o sperm
spir/o breathe
splen/o spleen
spondyl/o vertebra
staped/o stapes
staphyl/o clusters
stern/o sternum
steth/o chest
stomat/o mouth
strept/o chain-like
super/o superior
synovi/o synovia
T
tars/o tarsal
ten/o tendon
test/o testicle
therm/o heat
thorac/o thorax
thromb/o clot
thym/o thymus
thyroid/o thyroid gland
tibi/o tibia
tom/o pressure
tonsill/o tonsils
toxic/o poison
trachel/o trachea
trich/o hair
tympan/o eardrum
U
uln/o ulna
ungu/o nail
ureter/o ureter
urethr/o urethra
ur/o urine
uter/o uterus
uvul/o uvula
V
vagin/o vagina
valv/o valve
vas/o vessel
ven/o vein
ventricul/o ventricle
ventro/o frontal
vertebr/o vertebra
vesic/o bladder
vesicul/o seminal vesicle

mnemonics

ASSESSTMENT FOR:

HYPOCALCEMIA = CATS

C=convulsion
A=arythmias
T=tetany
S=spasm and stridor

HYPERNATREMIA = SALT FRIED

S=skin flushed ( fever)
A=agitation
L=low grade fever
T=thirst

also,
F=fever (low grade) flushed skin
R=restless ,irritable
I= increased fluid retention,increased BP
E= edema
D= decreased urinary output

HYPONATREMIA = SALT LOSS

S=stupor/coma
A=anorexia,n/v
L=lethargy
T=tendon reflex decreased

also,
L= limp muscle(weakness)
O=orthostatic hypotension
S=seizure/headache
S=stomach cramping

HYPERKALEMIA = MACHINE

M=medication(ACE inhibitors,NSAIDS)
A=acidosis(metabolic,respiratory)
C=cellular destruction(burns,traumatic injury)
H=hypoaldosteron,hemolysis
I= intake -excessive
N=nephrons,renal failure
E=excretion impaired

Definition of a Root Word II

F
femor/o femur
fet/i fetus
fet/o fetus
fibr/o fibrous tissue
fibul/o fibula
G
ganglion/o ganglion
gastr/o stomach
gingiv/o gum
glomerul/o glomerulus
gloss/o tongue
glyc/o sugar
gnos/o knowledge
gravid/o pregnancy
gynec/o woman
H
hem/o blood
hepat/o liver
herni/o hernia
heter/o other
hidr/o sweat
hist/o tissue
humer/o humerus
hydr/o water
hymen/o hymen
hyster/o uterus
I
ile/o ileum
ili/o ilium
irid/o iris
iri/o iris
ischi/o ischium
ischo/o blockage
J
jejun/o jejunum
K
kal/i potassium
kary/o nucleus
kerat/o hard
kinesi/o motion
kyph/o hump
L
lacrim/o tear duct
lact/o milk
lamin/o lamina
lapar/o abdomen
later/o lateral
lei/o smooth
leuk/o white
lingu/o tongue
lip/o fat
lith/o stone
lob/o lob/o
lord/o flexed forward
lumb/o lumbar
lymph/o lymph
M
mamm/o breast
mandibul/o mandible
mast/o breast
mastoid/o mastoid
maxill/o maxilla
meat/o opening
melan/o black
mening/o meninges
menisc/o meniscus
men/o menstruation
ment/o mind
metr/i uterus
metr/o uterus
mon/o one
muc/o mucus
myc/o fungus
myel/o spinal cord
my/o muscle

mnemonics

When a child has a cyanotic heart defect,check for the
"4'C's"

C-cyanosis,especially increasing with crying
C-crabbiness or irritability
C-clubbing of digits
C-crouching or squating,which increase systemic venous return,shunt blood from extremeties to the head and trunk and decrease cyanosis

S/S OF MI(myocardial infarction)- think of DANCE PAD....

D-dyspnea
A-anxiety
N-nausea/vomiting
C-crushing substernal chestpain
E-elevated temp.

P-pallor
A-arrythmias
D-diaporesis

Immediate tx for MI remember MOAN (like when patient has that crushing chestpain, he'll moan!):
Morphine, Oxygen, ASA, Nitroglycerine

Mnemonic for remembering "antiarrhythmics" DRUGS

CLASS IA
procainamide = professor
quinidine = quackers
disopyramide= dissed/dismiss

CLASS IB
lidocaine = lydia's
phenytoin = penny
mexiletine = mexican
tocainide = tacos

CLASS IC
flecainide = feeling
propafenone= profaned

CLASS II
propanolol = proper
beta blockers = bertha butt

CLASS III
amiodarone = amiable
bretylium = british
solatol = socialite

CLASS IV
verapamil = virtually
diltiazem = dismembered 'im

READ AS: Pofessor Quackers"dissed" - Lydia's penny Mexican tacos. Feeling profaned,proper Bertha butt,(amiable British socialite), virtually dismembered 'im!

"Cardio selective"( A BEAM)

A= acebutolol
B=betaxolol
E=esmolol
A=atenolol
M=metoprolol

"Beta receptor activity"

one- heart two - lungs

Beta 1= primarily on heart

airway is Beta 2 receptors

Treatment of CHF, think UNLOAD FAST:

U sit Upright
N Nitro
L Lasix
O Oxygen
A Aminophylline
D Digoxin

F Fluids- decrease
A Afterload - decrease
S Sodium - decrease
T Tests: dig level, ABG, K+

5 T's of early Cyanosis

T= tetralogy,transposition,truncus,total anomalous,triscuspid atresia.

REMEMBER...for HYPERTENSION:

H - Health Education
Y - Your diet is concern (low caloric & low fat diet)
P - Pressure Monitoring
E - Exercise
R - Rest and Relaxation
T - Take Medication
E - Eliminate Salt
N - No Smoking
S - Stress Reducing Technique
I - Inhibit Coffee & Stimulants
O - Observe for Complications
N - Never Forget to Take Medication

Foods high in sodium:

P-processed foods
M-moo foods (dairy)
S- salty tasting

Definition of a Root Word I

A
abdomin/o abdomen
acou/o hearing
aden/o gland
adenoid/o adenoids
adren/o adrenal gland
alveol/o alveolus
amni/o amnion
andro/o male
angi/o vessel
ankly/o stiff
anter/o frontal
an/o anus
aponeur/o aponeurosis
appendic/o appendix
arche/o beginning
arteri/o artery
atri/o atrium
aur/i ear
aur/o ear
aut/o self
B
bacteri/o bacteria
balan/o glans penis
bi/o life
blephar/o eyelid
bronch/i bronchus
bronch/o bronchus
C
calc/i calcium
cancer/o cancer
carcin/o cancer
cardi/o heart
carp/o carpals
caud/o tail
cec/o cecum
celi/o abdomen
cephal/o head
cerebell/o cerebellum
cerebr/o cerebrum
cervic/o cervix
cheil/o lip
cholangi/o bile duct
chol/e gall
chondro/o cartilage
chori/o chorion
chrom/o color
clavic/o clavicle
col/o colon
colp/o vagina
core/o pupil
corne/o cornea
coron/o heart
cortic/o cortex
cor/o pupil
cost/o rib
crani/o cranium
cry/o cold
cutane/o skin
cyes/i pregnancy
cyst/o bladder
D
dacry/o tear
dermat/o skin
diaphragmat/o diaphragm
dipl/o double
dips/o thirst
dist/o distal
diverticul/o diverticulum
dors/o back
duoden/o duodenum
dur/o dura
E
ech/o sound
electr/o electricity
embry/o embryo
encephal/o brain
endocrin/o endocrine
enter/o intestine
epididym/o epididymis
epiglott/o epiglottis
episi/o vulva
epitheli/o epithelium
erythr/o red
esophag/o esophagus
esthesi/o sensation

CS Set

complete pack
self ret
richardson
scissors: metz, mayo, bandage
suture: chromic 1 NA(non atro #2) 1st and 2nd layer
chromic 2.0 atromatic #1
plain 2.0 NA #1
vicryl 0 AT #1 (fascia)
dexon 4.0 #1 or vicryl 3.0 AT (skin)

8kelly curve
2kelly st
4allis
5towel clips
2needle holder
2blade holder
1tissue forcep
1thumb forcep
1bladder retractor
1 suture book

Prefixes

an- without
ante- before
bi- two
brady- slow
dia- through
dys- difficult
endo- within
epi- over
eu- normal
exo- outward
hemi- half
hyper- excessive
hypo- deficient
inter- between
intra- within
meta- change
multi- numerous
nulli- none
pan- total
para- beyond
per- through
peri- surrounding
post- after
pre- before
pro- before
sub- below
supra- superior
sym- join
syn- join
tachy- rapid
tetra- four
trans- through

Modified Radical Mastectomy

ap set
cautery machine
complete pack
baby richardson
army navy
allis
towel clips
gloves
blade 10
big OS
metz
mayo straight
big richardson
suture: silk 3-0, 2-0, vicyl 3-0

Suffixes

-al pertaining to
-algia pain
-apheresis removal
-ary pertaining to
-asthenia weakness
-capnia carbon dioxide
-cele hernia
-clasia break
-clasis break
-crit separate
-cyte cell
-desis fusion
-drome run
-eal pertaining to
-ectasis expansion
-ectomy removal
-esis condition
-genesis cause
-genic pertaining to
-gram record
-graph recording device
-ial pertaining to
-iasis condition
-iatrist physician
-iatry specialty
-ic pertaining to
-ician one that
-ictal attack
-ior pertaining to
-ism condition of
-itis inflammation
-lysis separating
-malacia softening
-meter measure
-odynia pain
-oid resembling
-ology study
-oma tumor
-opia vision
-opsy view of
-orrhaphy repairing
-orrhea flow
-osis condition
-otomy cut into
-oxia oxygen
-paresis partial paralysis
-pathy disease
-pepsia digestion
-pexy suspension
-phagia swallowing, eating
-phobia excessive fear of
-phonia sound, voice
-physis growth
-plasia development
-plasm a growth
-plegia paralysis
-pnea breathing
-poiesis formation
-ptosis sagging
-salpinx fallopian tube
-sacoma malignant tumor
-schisis crack
-sclerosis hardening
-stasis standing
-stenosis narrowing
-thorax chest
-tocia labor, birth
-tome cutting device
-trophy develop
-uria urine

Obstetrics/Gynecology

Amniocentesis: Removal of some fluid surrounding the fetus for analysis. Fetus location is identified by US prior to the procedure. Results may take a month.

Used to check for: Spina bifida, Rh compatibility, Immature lungs, Down syndrome

Chorionic villus sampling: Removal of placental tissue for analysis from the uterus during early pregnancy. US helps guide the procedure. 1-2 weeks get the results. Can be performed earlier than amniocentesis.

Used to check for: Tay-Sachs disease, Down syndrome, Other disorders

Preeclampsia: presence of protein in the urine, and increased BP during pregnancy. Found in 8% of pregnancies.

Eclampsia: seizures occurring during pregnancy, symptoms of pre-eclampsia have worsened. Factors that cause eclampsia vs. pre-eclampsia relatively unknown.

Oligohydramnios: Low levels of amniotic fluid that can cause: fetal abnormalities, ruptured membranes and fetus disorders.

Polyhydramnios: High levels of amniotic fluid that can cause: gestational diabetes and congenital defects.

Polyhydraminos Causes:

Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

Hydrops fetalis

Multiple fetus development

Anencephaly

Esophageal atresia

Gastroschisis

Sheehan’s syndrome: hypopituitarism caused by uterine hemorrhage during childbirth. The pituitary gland is unable to function due to blood loss.

Breast infections/Mastitis: Infection or inflammation due to bacterial infections. (S. aureus).

Atrophic vaginitis- low estrogen levels cause inflammation of the vagina. Most common after menopause.

Cervicitis: infection, foreign bodies,or chemicals that causes inflammation of the cervix.

Pelvic inflammatory disease: infection of the fallopian tubes, uterus or ovaries caused by STD’s in the majority of cases.

Toxic shock syndrome: infection of (S. aureus) that causes organ disorders and shock.

Hirsutism: development of dark areas of hair in women that are uncommon.

Causes:

Cushing’s syndrome

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

Hyperthecosis

PCOS

High Androgen levels

Certain medications

Dysmenorrhea: painful menses.

Endometriosis: abnormal tissue growth outside the uterus.

Stress Incontinence: A laugh, sneeze or activity that causes involuntary urination. Urethral sphincter dysfunction.

Urge incontinence- urine loss caused by bladder contraction.

Cholecystectomy

complete pack
ap set
blade 10 nd 20
gloves
prep bowl
kick bucket
et tube
gen anesthesia
cautery machine
suction
conray
asepto syringe
chole set
retractors
sutures
NGT
10cc syringe
T-tube
penrose drain

Appendectomy Set

complete pack
ap set
prep bowl
big OS
rubber tubing
suction tip
spinal set
scissors: mayo curve, metz, mayo straight
towel clips
army navy
baby richardson
deaver
sutures: chromic 3.0 vicyl 4.0 silk 3.0

set:
10mosquito curve
5 " straight
3kelly curve
2" straight
2needle holder
2blade holder
2 bobcock
1 tissue forcep
1 thumb forcep
5towel clip
1 suture book

TAHBSO

complete pack
TAHBSO set
gloves
blade 10,20
foley cath
urine bag
army navy
big OS
richardson
deaver wide nd narrow
self retaining
mixters
bobcock
epidural set
scissors
lidocaine
powder
sutures: chromic 1 NA, chromic 2.0 PDS 0, procere 3.0, silk 1 strand

1 bladder ret
1long thumb
1 tissue/thumb
3needle holder(long)
6 long kelly curve
2" straight
3ochsner curve
3" st
2kelly st
7" curve
blade handle 3 nd 4
4allis
5towel clips
suture book

needles

chromic 1.0 - 1st and 2nd
chromic 2.0 - 3rd peritoneum
vicryl 1-0 - fascia
plain 2-0 subq
vicryl 3-0 skin

Dermatology Review

Atopic Dermatitis: Scaling, Itching, Redness and Excoriation. Possible lichenification in chronic cases. Most common in young children around the elbow and knees. Adults are more common in neck and knees. May be associated with an allergic disorder, hay fever, or asthma.

Contact Dermatitis: Itchy, weepy reaction with a foreign substance (Poison Ivy) or lotions. Skin becomes red.

Diaper Rash: Inflammatory reaction in the region covered by a diaper. This may include chemical allergies, sweat, yeast, or friction irritation.

Ermatitis stasis: Decreased blood flow the lower legs resulting in a skin irritation, possible ulcer formation.

Onychomycosis: Fungal infection related to the fingernails or toenails. Often caused by Trichophyton rubrum.

Lichen planus: Treated with topical corticosteroids. The presence of pink or purple spots on the legs and arms. Lesions are itchy, flat and polygonal. May cause hair loss.

Pityriasis rosea: A mild to moderate rash that starts as a single pink patch and then numerous patches begin to appear on the skin. This may lead to itching. Found primarily in ages 10-35 years old.

Psoriasis: An autoimmune disease mediated by T lymphocytes that can lead to arthritis. Generally, treated with UV light, tar soap and topical steroid cream. A reddish rash that can be found in numerous locations.

Stevens-Johnson syndrome: An allergic reaction that can include rashes, and involve the inside of the mouth. May be due to drug sensitivity. Can lead to uveitis and keratitis. Other factors related to SJS include: pneumonia, fever, myalgia and hepatitis. SJS can be extremely similar to varicella zoster and pemphigus vulgaris conditions. There may also be the presence of herpes virus or Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

Bullous pemphigoid: Eruptions of the skin caused by the accumulation of antibodies in the basement membrane of the skin. Treated with cortisone creams or internally. Skin biopsy offers definitive diagnosis.

Acne vulgaris: Oil glands become inflamed, plugged or red. May be treated in moderate to severe cases with anti-inflammatory medications or creams.

Rosacea: A redness that covers the middle part of the face. Blood vessels in the face dilate. Most common in adults 30-50 years old. Unable to be cured, only treated. May cause long term skin damage is left untreated. Antibiotics are often prescribed.

Seborrheic keratosis: The development of skin “tags” or the barnacles of old age. Usually found in people over 30 years old. Appear to be tabs growing in groups or individually on your skin. Can be treated with Scrapping, Freezing or Electrosurgery.

Actinic keratosis: A site that can become cancerous, usually small and rough on the skin that has been exposed to the sun a lot. Usually treated with cryosurgery and photodynamic therapy.

Scabies: Caused by the human itch mite: Sarcaptes scabies, and identified by presence of raised, red bumps that are itchy. Closer identification with a visual aid will show streaks in the skin created by the mite.

Molluscum contagiosum: Considered a STD. Small downgrowths called molluscum bodies that include the presence of soft tumors in the skin caused by a virus. Contagious.

Herpes zoster: Infection caused by the varicella-zoster virus. Can cause chickenpox and then shingles in later years. The virus infects the dosal root ganglia of nerves and can cause intense itching.

St. Anthony’s Fire: Claviceps purpurea (fungus) can cause intense pain in the extremities by causing blood vessels to constrict. Fungus produces ergotamines.

Impetigo: A skin infection caused by Staph or Streptococcus that causes itchy, red skin and pustules. Treated with topical antibiotics and primarily affects children.

Acanthosis nigricans: The presence of dark velvety patches of skin around the armpit, back, neck and groin. Can occur with multiple diseases. Has been linked to patients with insulin dysfunction.

Hidradenitis suppurativa: The presence of numerous abscess in the groin and armpit region.

Melasma: “Mask of Pregnancy” Changes in the pigmentation of women that are pregnant. Occurs in 50% of all pregnancies.

Urticaria: Elevated itchy areas that are linked to allergic reactions. May be accompanied with edema and may blanch with touch. “Hives”

Vitiligo: Loss of melanocytes resulting in skin turning white. Hair in regions affected will also turn white. Primarily identified in ages 10-30. Several genetic factors involved. May be associated with other more severe autoimmune disorders.

Nursing Licensure Result June 2008

COMPLETE LIST OF NURSING LICENSURE EXAM PASSERS

A total of 27,765 out of 64,459 passed the Nurse Licensure Examination held last June 2008. The examination was administered in 10 areas nationwide.

Click here.

TOP 10 NURSING BOARD PASSERS 2008

MANILA, Philippines—Following are the top 10 test-takers of the nursing licensure examination:

Top 1
• Aira Therese Salamanca Javier, University of Santo Tomas -- 86.00%

Top 2
Alrin Flores Falgui, Far Eastern University-Nicanor Reyes Medical Foundation -- 85.80%

Top 3
• Kristine Maravilla Mendoza, Remedios Trinidad Romualdez Memorial School -- 85.60%
• Joanna Jacob Quirante, University of Santo Tomas -- 85.60%

Top 4
• Ana Rica Chan Gutierrez, University of Santo Tomas -- 85.40%
• Dalfon Silvio Babular Navaja, Cebu Institute of Technology -- 85.40%
• Maria Alyssa Yee Policarpio, University of Santo Tomas -- 85.40%
• Aileen Grace Yu Sotyco, University of Santo Tomas -- 85.40%

Top 5
• Michelle Cruz Amoroso, University of the Philippines-Manila -- 85.20%
• Ma. Regina Basa Ang, Our Lady of Fatima University-Valenzuela -- 85.20%
• Michelle Joyce Cheung Encarnacion, University of Santo Tomas -- 85.20%
• Lyka Abalajon Gede-Y, Riverside College -- 85.20%
• Jason Albia Go, University of Santo Tomas -- 85.20%
• Katherine Rose Rodrigo Raquel, De La Salle University-Dasmariñas Health Science Campus -- 85.20%

Top 6
• Regina Krys Villaflor Cabanilla, Cebu Normal University (Cebu State College) -- 85.00%
• Aster Annie De Jesus Calma, University of the Philippines-Manila -- 85.00%
• Tracy Michelle Buan Catacutan, Centro Escolar University-Manila -- 85.00%
• Diana Justo Cupino, University of Santo Tomas -- 85.00%
• Rachel Mae Tabuena Daigdigan, Mindanao State University-Marawi City -- 85.00%
• Karen Marie Galvez Flores, Trinity University of Asia (Trinity-QC) -- 85.00%
• Elaine Esther Saldua Funtanar, Cebu Normal University (Cebu State College) -- 85.00%
• Marion Delos Santos Llauder, University of Santo Tomas -- 85.00%
• Kevin Bryan Uy Lo, University of Santo Tomas -- 85.00%
• Anne Lorraine Trinidad Lorenzo, University of Perpetual Help Rizal-Las Piñas -- 85.00%
• Louie Jhon Erracho Lunaria, University of the Philippines-Manila -- 85.00%
• Joanna Roxas Maala, Our Lady of Fatima University-Valenzuela -- 85.00%
• Patrick Paras Mejia, University of Santo Tomas -- 85.00%
• Kristine Valino Picadizo, University of Perpetual Help Rizal-Las Piñas -- 85.00%
• Eiren Oro Rebute, West Visayas State University-La Paz -- 85.00%
• Rizza Armas Tamayo, Colegio De Dagupan (Computronix College) -- 85.00%
• Anna Mae Maquiling Trinidad, Mindanao State University-Marawi City -- 85.00%
• Jennifer Laggad Ugalde, Dr. Carlos S. Lanting College-Q.C. -- 85.00%

Top 7
• Ma. Leonor Galvan Barbosa, Mindanao Sanitarium & Hospital College of Med -- 84.80%
• Jennifer Baguio Gait, Velez College -- 84.80%
• Ariane Castañares Llevares, Cebu Normal University (Cebu State College) -- 84.80%
• Neil Anthony Esmilla Manzano, Our Lady of Fatima University-Valenzuela -- 84.80%
• Oliver Naval Mendoza, Saint Bernadette College of Health And Sciences -- 84.80%
• Maricor Cortez Montalbo, University of the Philippines-Manila -- 84.80%
• Tara Patawaran Patawaran, Dr. Carlos S. Lanting College-Q.C. -- 84.80%
• Roger Carlo Payawal Pineda, Dr. Yanga's Francisco Balagtas College -- 84.80%
• Bartolome Arthur Marcaida Quincina, Dr. Carlos S. Lanting College-Q.C. -- 84.80%
• Marion Katrina Lara Raguini, Far Eastern University-Manila -- 84.80%

Top 8
• Ma Cristina Diesta Arroyo, University of the East Ramon Magsaysay Mem. Medical Center -- 84.60%
• Lance Lambert Gatdula Ayson, Bulacan State University (Bulacan Coll. of Arts & Trades) -- 84.60%
• Carla Emille Dalangin Barbon, University of the Philippines-Manila -- 84.60%
• Rosauro Cruz Briones, Manuel S. Enverga Univ. Foundation-Lucena City -- 84.60%
• Jan Paolo Santiago Caparas, De La Salle University-Dasmariñas Health Science -- 84.60%
• Sozein Soliel Bacena Bustamante, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.60%
• Lourdes Claire Rodriguez David, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.60%
• Ana Joy Almie Cruz Dizon, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.60%
• Lorrainne Yu Embay, University of the Visayas-Mandaue City -- 84.60%
• Kristine Marie Lee Indiongco, Perpetual Help College of Manila -- 84.60%
• Imee Loren Chan Lim, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.60%
• Sim Pama Paniza, West Visayas State University-La Paz -- 84.60%
• Rochelle-Anne Ordinanza Primavera, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.60%
• Raichel Faye Mallari Ringor, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.60%
• Roxan Salvadora Roman, Our Lady of Fatima University-Valenzuela -- 84.60%
• Czarina Ann Arellano Sevilla, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.60%
• Jeffrey De Justo Silva, Saint Paul University-Iloilo -- 84.60%
• Zyena Joyce Palines Untalasco, University of the Philippines-Manila -- 84.60%
• Paola Sarona Young, University of the East Ramon Magsaysay Mem. Medical Center -- 84.60%

Top 9
• Blake Warren Coloma Ang, Cebu Doctors’ University -- 84.40%
• Trisha Carmelli Gonzales Bautista, University of the Philippines-Manila -- 84.40%
• Danica Bianca Bernad Cagalawan, Saint Michael's College-Iligan City -- 84.40%
• Janna Bianca Albano Cajigal, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.40%
• Kathryn Kaye Aquino Carpio, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.40%
• Glynnis Doreen Olegario Corpuz, Capitol Medical Center School of Nursing -- 84.40%
• Katrina Rae Limjoco Daza, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.40%
• Jean Daisy Camacho De Guzman, University of the Philippines-Manila -- 84.40%
• Fritzie Praxidio Dela Cruz, University of Perpetual Help System-Laguna -- 84.40%
• Willenburgh Wong Ducusin, Manila Central University-Caloocan City -- 84.40%
• Gwen Atienza Legaspi, Saint Paul University-Manila -- 84.40%
• John Philip Tecson Lim, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.40%
• Stephanie Anne Chan Lopez, De Los Santos-Sti College,Inc-(Delos Santos S.N.) -- 84.40%
• Myron Marco Miranda Mariano, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.40%
• John Vincent Lim Omo, Holy Name University (Divine Word-Tagbilaran) -- 84.40%
• Maria Wella Balbona Pichon, University of the Visayas-Cebu City -- 84.40%
• May Stephanie Go Pua, Naga College Foundation -- 84.40%
• Daryle Joie Masocol Ragasa, Manila Doctors’ College -- 84.40%
• Girlie Lazaro Repuyan, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.40%
• Meludee Joy Madrigal Roche, Cebu Normal University (Cebu State College) -- 84.40%
• Maria Aileen Custodio Santiago, Dr. Carlos S. Lanting College-Q.C. -- 84.40%
• Arthur Michael Aris Camu Sunico, Far Eastern University-Manila -- 84.40%
• John Hirogie Abad Toku, Trinity University of Asia (Trinity-QC) -- 84.40%
• Angela Solayao Tiu, Velez College -- 84.40%
• Catherine Dasmariñas Uy -- Southeast Asian College (UDMC) -- 84.40%

Top 10
• Romina Paula Parreño Barrameda, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.20%
• John Robert Razote Bautista, Trinity University of Asia (Trinity-Qc) -- 84.20%
• Jeriel Bayhonan Besagas, Cebu Normal University (Cebu State College) -- 84.20%
• Marienne Sungcad Bravo, STI College Cebu, Inc -- 84.20%
• Evelyn Cuares Caseñas, University of Bohol -- 84.20%
• Bridgel Avila Galorio, Cebu Normal University (Cebu State College) -- 84.20%
• Ma. Bernadette Valdivia Lopez-Dee, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.20%
• May Flor Llego Marcolino, Larmen De Guia Memorial College -- 84.20%
• Kristian Santos Noche, Centro Escolar University-Manila -- 84.20%
• Dianne Mae Lagman Notario, Our Lady of Fatima University-Valenzuela -- 84.20%
• Kristine Ann Tagupa Panal, Mountain View College -- 84.20%
• Marnela Kathleen Veluya Pasamba, Sacred Heart College of Lucena City, Inc. -- 84.20%
• Ruby Joma Fadri Rafanan, Adventist University of the Philippines -- 84.20%
• Razeille Kristine Asistio Razon, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.20%
• Darra May Rapada Riano, Far Eastern University-Manila -- 84.20%
• Jomar Pacleb Ronquillo, Columban College-Olongapo City -- 84.20%
• Jeffrey Ramos Salazar, University of the Philippines-Manila -- 84.20%
• Frederick Abad Sampang, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.20%
• Marnelee Grace Rivera Semilla, Trinity University of Asia (Trinity-QC) -- 84.20%
• Janelle Grace Teo Sia, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.20%
• Jeanette Martinez Villar, West Visayas State University-La Paz -- 84.20%

CONGRATULATIONS EVERYONE!

courtesy of inquirer.net